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Would a race/species that lives twice as long as humans experience linguistic evolution at half the rate of humans? If not, would it be slowed down at all? Would any cultural characteristics have a noticeable effect (e.g. extreme cultural conservatism slowing it down)?

If this wouldn't have a noticeable effect, what other factors might contribute to one culture speaking a much more "archaic" descendant of a proto-language than another culture with whom they have significant contact?

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    $\begingroup$ What's important (for this question) is the length of a generation. Linguistic change happens mostly in the process of transmission of language from parents to children. But then, the speed of linguistic change is very highly variable depending on the specific social, cultural and economic conditions. Compare, for example, the massive change experienced by the English language between the 11th and the 16th centuries, with the very very much smaller change between the 16th and the 21st centuries. We can still read books printed in the 1600s. $\endgroup$
    – AlexP
    Mar 29, 2020 at 21:44
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    $\begingroup$ ... The point being that there is very little consensus of whether there is such a thing as a well-defined rate of linguistic change. You may be interested to read about glottochronology and its pitfalls. $\endgroup$
    – AlexP
    Mar 29, 2020 at 21:46
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    $\begingroup$ Alright, so what if we treated both cases: on the one hand, we might have a species that lives 200 years but has a similar time to maturity as humans (i.e., they mature around 20ish but don't start dying of old age until 160-180 years old); on the other, what if they took twice as long to become adults, not maturing until their late 30s or early 40s)? Would the former culture experience a more "human" rate of linguistic change, while the latter experiences it much slower? $\endgroup$
    – Horik
    Mar 30, 2020 at 1:56
  • $\begingroup$ Languages might also change due to external influences: do these people have only one language and are they living isolated (island, mountain region) or do they have several languages, and those language groups have a lot of contact (trading, travelling etc)? For the former, language will change slower than for the latter, and the latter will have a different quality of change (external vocabulary, maybe eben grammar changes). $\endgroup$
    – Risadinha
    Mar 30, 2020 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ @Horik I would say that your first society would probably experience a roughly human rate of change (albeit possibly slowed slightly due to the outsized influence of the prestigious speech of the older generation), while the second would probably experience a slower rate of change due to the larger time gap between generations. $\endgroup$
    – bradrn
    Mar 30, 2020 at 13:24

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There are various aspects to linguistic drift to consider. The example that comes to mind is American Southern English, which preserves archaic words like "yonder", but also pushes the vowel shift such that using "drunk" as the past-tense of "drink" is necessary because "drink" and "drank" are pronounced more or less the same[1]. See also: Yorkshire English preserving rimnants of thou and thee long after they fell into disuse in most other dialects.

There's also the matter of top-down influences. Using English again, most of our whacky spelling comes from the establishing of standards more or less mid vowel-shift, so everyone kept writing for the old pronunciation, but speaking with the new. There's also the way in which "thou" fell out of use, which is to say, it became seen as rude and low-class[2], which trickled to the rest of the Anglophone world from the well-connected politeness-influencers of the Elizabethan era. Compare to the 20th and 21st centuries, where regional dialects in the US rapidly started to flatten with the spread of mass media, especially movies and national television programs. The English of today is certainly mutually understandable with the English of the earliest audio recordings, but I doubt many would have trouble distinguishing Edwardian English from Millennial English, for most dialects.

As for life-span, life expectancy has increased over the past 150 years, but mass media and the overall rate of cultural and technological change has made it such that one could argue that Millennials and GenZ are speaking different dialects from their grandparents, especially if they're from a region with less media influence. Meanwhile, the life-expectancy among American Southerners, and indeed most of their ancestors all the way back to the Scotch Irish[3], have generally had below-average life-expectancies, but have arguably been slower to change.

My conclusion, then, is that, if longer life-spans would slow linguistic drift, it must come with the old having a great deal of cultural influence, and perhaps even some stagnation besides. It seems that things like pronunciation are more likely to change randomly, whereas the loss of archaic words and phrases is more likely to come from being connected to the wider cultural influencers. Isolation and rurality seem better predictors of archaicisms than lifespan, but it seems that isolation and rurality negatively correlate with lifespan. So long-lived, insular, gerintocratic rural subcultures seem like the most stable.

  • [1] There are many dialects under the "American Southern" umbrella. I don't even think "American Southern" is an official term. And there's a lot of local variation as well. Generally speaking for the set of dialects I'm most familiar with, though, the drink/drank merger was pretty prevalent before the internet and affordable cable.
  • [2] To grossly oversimplify, anyway. It's more like "thou" (or "thu", because I have no idea how to get my phone to type thorn) was the second-person singular, then the French introduced the T-V distinction, and also took over polite society, so using "thou" the old way was a peasantly trait. Then using it at all. Interesting that political correctness managed to wipe out a whole pronoun, but profanity remains exactly the same, and even grew stronger over the past generation or two.
  • [3] People in the South have always had diverse backgrounds, and those have jointly influenced the resulting dialects. I focus on Scotch-Irish, rather than Cavaliers or the numerous African ethnicities or Indians, because they were saying "yonder" for centuries before coming to America, whereas the others (excepting the Cavaliers) were speaking completely different languages. I should also note that, as of about GenX or so, "yonder" became something of a class marker, such that you can tell a lot about someone under 50 based on whether or not they use it casually. And it rhymes with "under".

* I am not a linguist. On the off chance this answer seems acceptable, please do wait to see if an actual linguist shows up and tears it apart.

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Regardless of how we learn it, language is constantly evolving for a very simple reason; our lives are constantly changing. New social interactions and methods arise and replace old ones as different ways of seeing the world fall in and out of fashion, technology both encroaches upon us and enables us to do things we thought impossible before, and we need new words to describe that over time. Further, anyone who has ever traveled abroad for an extended period often returns with a bit of an accent or an odd turn of phrase picked up while living away, and that is a good thing.

Sure, we pick up language from our parents and teachers when we are young, and therefore our adaptability to new phonemes and words and concepts is far more pronounced during that time but it never goes away. If it did, it would literally make it impossible to learn new things as we could only incorporate ideas for which we developed a vocabulary before a certain age and life just doesn't work like that. At least, not for the sufficiently curious. Further, the fact that people learn new languages as adults for work or pleasure proves this point completely. An extended lifespan may reduce our adaptability somewhat but it isn't the material factor in the evolution of language; the rate of external change is.

Want proof of this? Well, in England, you have the Annual Royal Christmas Message. This is really useful for testing the proposition of change of language because it's been delivered by the same person for an extended period - a person whose contact with the general population is somewhat controlled but still there, and there are recordings of it around the place that you can access.

As an exercise, find as many of them as you can, and play them in sequence. Does the Queen's voice change? Does her use of words? Does the prevailing theme change over time? Does she use words in later recordings that were not in general use in the 30's for instance? I think the results might surprise you.

In short, the length of a lifespan may have a factor in the rate of change, but that is overwhelmed by the rate of change within society and that is what really drives the need for language to evolve. It's the concepts we discuss among ourselves, the new devices and technology that enable new ways of doing things and new practices, all of which need names, that really changes how we approach language and as such, is the principle driver in the way language changes.

As an aside though, if you look at linguistic theories like Grimm's Law you'll also begin to see that language has to be convenient, and language tends to migrate from complex forms and difficult sounds to make down to simpler forms and more convenient sounds at a rate which is proportional to the commonality of the word that's evolving. That is going to happen regardless of how long someone lives.

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    $\begingroup$ " our lives are constantly changing. " But that is not true for a medieval farmer (medieval here is between 800 and 1300, 1400 max.) $\endgroup$ Mar 29, 2020 at 23:41
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    $\begingroup$ @JulianEgner While that's a good point, I wasn't limiting the discussion to a medieval time period. Ultimately the world in which I'll be applying the information is in roughly the "medieval" block on the tech-tree (some cultures are more/less advanced), of course, but I see no reason to restrict it to medieval times. $\endgroup$
    – Horik
    Mar 30, 2020 at 1:53
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    $\begingroup$ @JulianEgner You'd be surprised. 800AD was the start of the Vikings being a major power in Northern Europe. Brits remember 1066 as the Norman invasion, but the reason William the Conqueror's invasion succeeded was that it happened at the same time as a Viking invasion in the north, and the Normans were actually Vikings who'd conquered northern France. And for farmers, that's also exactly the period when the horse collar took off. Productivity went through the roof, farmers got richer, and that tension directly ended the power of the feudal system. Basically, a lot changed! $\endgroup$
    – Graham
    Mar 30, 2020 at 10:16
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    $\begingroup$ You say that ‘language is constantly evolving for a very simple reason; our lives are constantly changing’. This seems reasonable at a glance, but stating that life changes are the main cause of language change is actually incorrect (as JulianEgner has pointed out). The main drivers of language change are causes such as the principle of least effort, attempts to improve expressivity, analogy of similar words, lexical drift and language contact; the changes involved in our lives play little or no role in any of these. $\endgroup$
    – bradrn
    Mar 30, 2020 at 13:20
  • $\begingroup$ @Graham I did not want to say, that in 400 years nothing changed, of course not. But have a look at the time from 1990-2020, where the lives of most humans where changed in many ways political, cultural and most of all technical. I don't think that we can imagine a life where this was not the case $\endgroup$ Mar 31, 2020 at 13:52
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In my opinion, linguistic evolution would be accelerated within a long lived species.

A pre-lingual individual, who discovers the fundamentals of language and develops a simple vocabularies of grunts and hand-gestures, would benefit from improved tribe organization and cooperation with her peers. That benefit, experienced within a single long life, would accumulate, inspiring her to expand the original vocabulary and apply the idea of language to more and more aspects of her life.

Shorter lived species would have less remaining lifetime left, after first learning language and then realizing its benefits, to achieve such expansion and broadening of use. In the same span of time that a single long lived speaker learns, uses and grows their language, several generations of shorter lived speakers would attempt the same achievement. But each of those shorter lived generations would spend a larger relative percentage of their life learning language, while their longer lived alternative only has to learn once.

So in my opinion, longer lived species will develop language quicker and achieve more complex language characteristics than their shorter lived equivalents.

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    $\begingroup$ Hmmm. Actually, a lot of language evolution happens during the process of transmission from parents to children. Once a person's form of speech is fixed, it doesn't really change much throughout their life; which you may notice comparing the speech of older people to the speech of younger people. $\endgroup$
    – AlexP
    Mar 29, 2020 at 21:38
  • $\begingroup$ Is that so? Huh, I'd never really thought about where the evolution actually happens in the context of human life-spans, though it makes a lot of sense that what a parent might consider a "speech impediment" or "damn yunguns and their shoddy grammar" in their child's language, a later linguist might consider a phonemic evolution. Food for thought. $\endgroup$
    – Horik
    Mar 29, 2020 at 22:01
  • $\begingroup$ @AlexP, very interesting assertion, well defended. You are saying that there is no growth of vocabulary or grammatical style after youth. If it is true, then that definitely invalidates my answer, shifting the advantage to the shorter-lived species. But I am not sure it is exclusively true. On an individual basis, I can pick heavy readers out of a crowd. People who inundate themselves in language everyday evolve into better speakers, regardless of the age at which they start reading. I agree that there is a difference by age, but I'm not sure which generation gets the "evolution" badge. $\endgroup$ Mar 29, 2020 at 22:17
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    $\begingroup$ Vocabulary, yes, it can and does change greatly in later life. On the other hand, vocabulary is the most mutable part of a language. So greatly mutable, that it is generally accorded very little importance. $\endgroup$
    – AlexP
    Mar 29, 2020 at 22:31
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In English linguistic drift essentially stopped once literacy became common. Shakespeare's English is still mostly understandable now, although there are changes in meaning, some odd constructions.

Go back to the Canterbury tales, and it's a lot harder -- a lot mroe than the increase from 400 years to 600 years would seem appropriate. Big difference was that more people could read and write. A written language doesn't change much.

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  • $\begingroup$ a source for this claim would be nice. $\endgroup$
    – John
    Apr 1, 2020 at 1:51

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