Timeline for How would mankind “tame” wormholes enough to use them for travel?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
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Apr 17, 2017 at 0:06 | comment | added | SRM | @kai because velocity and gravity change spacetime, you can never meaningfully determine whether any two events occurred at the same time for any interstellar distance. At star X, they see your Utah clock strike noon and then they see star Y go nova. At star Z, they see star Y go nova and then see the Utah clock strike noon. Both are correct because time is relative. That's the frustrating result of Einstein's discoveries, confirmed in many more experiments since then. | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 16:47 | comment | added | Aify | @KaiChristensen Doesn't work like that. The "Current Universal Time" is different for everyone looking at the clock; eg: the present isn't consistent. | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 15:39 | vote | accept | Kai Christensen | ||
Apr 16, 2017 at 15:36 | answer | added | Jim2B | timeline score: 4 | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 15:19 | answer | added | Alex Robinson | timeline score: 1 | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 14:56 | comment | added | Kai Christensen | OK. I define the present as whatever the current Universal Time (based in Utah, I believe) is recorded as at the time the wormhole is opened. Looking at that time before and after traveling through the wormhole shouldn’t cause any huge gaps, if you see what I mean. | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 14:45 | answer | added | SRM | timeline score: 1 | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 14:32 | comment | added | SRM | Define "present." That's THE fundamental problem of relativity -- there is no singular present. Any current event here happens in the past from some points and in the future from other points. Crossing space with FTL (and wormholes count as FTL) causes relativity problems. Your question is thus unanswerable unless you detail how you want to resolve that. | |
Apr 16, 2017 at 14:20 | history | edited | Kai Christensen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Apr 16, 2017 at 14:07 | history | asked | Kai Christensen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |