Timeline for How would companies respond to all employees being eligible for overtime compensation payment, as compared to only some employees being eligible?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 29, 2015 at 12:35 | vote | accept | Green | ||
| Jul 11, 2015 at 17:45 | comment | added | WhatRoughBeast | Ah, I think I see the problem. When I said "effective base pay is the same ", I meant that, after adjusting for differences in both internalities and externalities, the company pays the same for 40 hours of labor from each class. In this case the flexibility in size of the hourly work force compensates for the increased cost of 55 hours of labor by the hourly's. | |
| Jul 11, 2015 at 17:39 | comment | added | user4239 | precisely (that last one). Contractor rates are typically 100% higher. | |
| Jul 11, 2015 at 17:06 | comment | added | WhatRoughBeast | @DVK - Not stated and not consistent with the OP. If salaried employment costs are 100% higher than hourly, then even with 30% unpaid overtime (15 hrs per week), salaried are far more expensive than hourly, and the factors set forth in the OP do not apply. Where equal skill levels apply, such as subcontractors (real subcontractors, not sham), they typically charge more per hour to make up for missing benefits - medical, vacation, etc. | |
| Jul 11, 2015 at 17:01 | comment | added | user4239 | -1 for disregarding basic but important factors of real economy. E.g. "Let's assume that the effective base pay is the same for both groups" is manifestly wrong in an important way - salaried employee employment cost is typically (IIRC) ~100% above their base salary cost, due to intangible benefits etc... | |
| Jul 11, 2015 at 15:57 | history | answered | WhatRoughBeast | CC BY-SA 3.0 |