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Sep 28, 2020 at 3:40 comment added Seallussus @raubvogel, I mean we are talking about archaic stuff that is several THOUSANDS years ago. Not even medieval or anything similar. The Romanovs! What do you mean? They were killed as part of the revolution and as a part of struggle of power. Not under a law. Not different from a pretender to the throne killing another in battle or captivity. Even in the bible I'm sure that it is viewed as an absolute evil act to murder these children. Besides was it part of the law or did the ruler just decide to do so? You have to provide evidence of legal precedent then.
Sep 28, 2020 at 3:12 comment added raubvogel I would disagree with your "In your earlier example of killing at birth no law or constitution in the world would allow that." There is enough historical precedent to that. If we use the bible as reference (whether its events are historical is off-topic in my comment), that is how the Moses story starts. And then we have Jericho and the end of the Romanovs. The reasoning here is if you do not kill the son he will grow up and avenge the father.
Sep 27, 2020 at 19:23 history answered Seallussus CC BY-SA 4.0